1. You need to know the nucleotide sequence at each end of a gene in order
(a) observe restriction fragment length polymorphisms (RFLPs).
(b) cut off a gene at both ends with a restriction enzyme.
(c) clone by nuclear transfer.
*(d) do the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
(e) implant an embryo.
2. They needed a surrogate mother to
*(a) clone Dolly.
(b) demonstrate that the calico cat had clones of brown and black fur bearing
(c) recombine a gene into a circle of DNA.
(d) transform bacteria with plasmids.
(e) transform the R strain with DNA from the S strain to make a fatal pnemonia
3. The ends at the site of a cut by EcoR1 are called sticky ends because
*(b) single stranded DNA.
(c) DNA ligase.
(d) DNA polymerase extracted from bacteria that live in hot springs.
4. Which would be needed in in vitro fertilization for a couple who
can not conceive?
(a) short tandem repeats.
(d) a microarray.
5. One DNA fragment was found (cutting with Mst II) in sickle cell homozygotes,
two in a normal subject. How many fragments in a heterozygote?
6. It was useful to have a DNA polymerase resistant to high temperature
because it was useful to heat the DNA. Why heat the DNA?
(a) to cut the DNA at palindromes
(b) to insert the Bt toxin gene into the Ti plasmid
*(c) to separate the two strands of the double helix
(d) to make rice that has vitamin A (beta carotene)
(e) to create GMOs (genetically modified organisms)
7. The example of mating in the praying mantis
(a) substantiates Lamarck's theory.
(b) relates to food resources growing more slowly than the population.
(c) was Darwin's major finding from the Galapagos Islands.
*(d) shows that an individual's genes can go to the next generation even
if the individual dies.
(e) pertains to coevolution.
8. The bright color of the viceroy butterfly is adaptive because
*(a) the similarly colored monarch butterfly makes birds sick.
(b) it helped them coevolve with the plants they pollinated.
(c) it attracts a mate.
(d) their population has grown exponentially while their food resources
only grew linearly.
(e) it serves as camouflage.
9. The example of Darwin's finches pertains to
(a) the notion that two animals are not the same species if their offspring
are not fertile.
(b) the likelihood of extinction of a species that evolved in an island
(c) visual sensitivity to ultraviolet (UV) light.
(d) substitutions of nucleotides in DNA's sequence over evolutionary time.
*(e) divergent evolution.
10. According to Darwin's theory of evolution, present day giraffes came
to have long necks because
(a) of genetic drift.
*(b) long necked giraffes survive to reproductive age because they are better
adapted to eat while short necked giraffes die young.
(c) use of the neck enlarges it and each giraffe passes on its neck characteristics
determined by such use vs. disuse.
(d) all giraffes reproduce similarly, but, after the reproductive part of
the life span is passed, long necked giraffes can live to an older age.
(e) of the bottleneck phenomenon.
11. "Analogy" is used instead of "homology"
(a) in the story about a wasp pollinating an orchid because it is attracted
to a sex-attractant chemical.
*(b) in comparing wings of insects vs. birds.
(c) in comparing the wing of a bat with the flipper of a seal.
(d) when discussing common ancestors in a "tree of life."
(e) when comparing Malthus vs. Wallace theories.
(a) went extinct when settlers, arriving at the island, found them to be
(b) were found by Darwin to fill all the niches in the Galapagos Islands.
(c) have wings that are considered to be vestigial structures since they
run but do not fly.
*(d) pollinate large red flowers.
(e) are proof that characteristics acquired during a lifetime by use are
13. The peacock is a classic example of
(a) intelligent design.
(b) sympatric speciation.
*(c) sexual selection.
(e) the bottleneck effect.
14. The Hardy-Weinberg principle
(a) describes how a new species using a cis-pheromone arose from a population
using a trans-pheromone.
(b) explains why, if there is natural selection against tall and short people,
the population will eventually become less variable (in height).
*(c) describes allele frequency if there is no migration, no mutation and
no natural selection in a large population with random mating.
(d) explains what is wrong with the genome of the cheetah.
(e) describes speciation with an allopatric isolating mechanism.
15. Some flies left apple trees and went to hawthorn trees long ago and
eventually became a different species. Here we use the term
(a) genetic drift.
(b) comparative embryology.
(c) punnett square.
(d) amniote egg.
*(e) sympatric speciation.
16. If an event drastically reduces the size of the population, a reduced
number of alleles may be present in the resulting population because of
(a) adaptive radiation.
(b) directional selection.
*(c) the bottleneck effect.
(d) convergent evolution.
(e) survival of the fittest.
17. A phylogeny
(a) has organisms from a long time ago on the left and present-day organisms
on the right.
(b) is constructed when you apply a test for significant deviation from
the predictions of the Hardy-Weinberg principle.
(c) is constructed when analogous traits are compared.
*(d) draws diversity on the X axis and time on the Y axis
(e) is when individuals mate and create fertile offspring.
18. One type of moth looks just like a bird dropping and is less likely
to be eaten by a bird.
*(a) This is camouflage.
(b) This is warning coloration.
(c) This is genetic drift.
(d) This is called comparative anatomy.
(e) This is because most of the genes are homozygous.
19. Notochord, gill slits and a tail characterize
(b) all species with hybrid vigor.
(d) polygenic inheritance.
*(e) chordates (the group that includes vertebrates).
20. According to the Hardy-Weinberg Principle, if 3/4 of the alleles in
the gene pool are A1 and 1/4 are A2, what fraction of individuals has genotype
A1A2 in this population?
(e) none of the above
21. Under what circumstances would you call it "chromatin" instead
(a) in the nucleus vs. in the centrioles
(b) right before the kinetochore splits vs. right after it splits
(c) in metaphase vs. in anaphase
(d) in the karyotype vs. in gametes
*(e) in interphase vs. in mitosis
22. DNA synthesis occurs (when)?
(a) only when a cell has exited the cell cycle to G0.
(b) between metaphase and anaphase.
*(c) between the G1 and G2 parts of the cell cycle.
(d) during mitosis.
(e) after both sister chromatids are present.
23. A fully differentiated adult diploid cell that has to last for a lifetime
because it is not replaced by mitosis:
(a) a gamete
*(b) a neuron in the central nervous system
(c) a cell in the intestinal lining
(d) any diploid cell
(e) a centromere
24. Microtubules are in cilia, flagella, and
*(a) the spindle apparatus.
(b) the Barr body.
(d) a karyotype.
(e) growth factor receptors.
25. Chromosome 20 is present in two copies in the karyotype.
(a) One copy was the template DNA strand, the other was the complementary
(b) These two copies are referred to as the tetrad.
(c) One was an autosome, the other was a sex chromosome.
*(d) One homologue came from your mother, the other from your father.
(e) Such a karyotype is produced from a gamete.
26. "Retinoblastoma" (Rb), named after an eye cancer, is a protein
that can be phosphorylated
(a) when the centromere divides during mitosis.
*(b) by cyclin dependent kinase (Cdk).
(c) only when there is cancer.
(d) during meiosis.
(e) to induce recombination.
27. Two copies of each gene in a diploid eukaryote can be different.
(a) This is referred to as aneuploidy.
(b) If they are different, the organism is true breeding.
*(c) With respect to that gene, the organism is called heterozygous.
(d) With respect to that gene, the organism is called hemizygous.
(e) Such an organism is called a spore.
28. We have talked about some mutations as being detrimental.
(a) The opposite of detrimental is recessive.
(b) A detrimental mutation is the cause of trisomy 21.
(c) Klinefelter's syndrome is the result of such a detrimental mutation.
*(d) In contrast, mutations can also be the driving force of evolution by
creating variability in the population.
(e) These mutations arise from nondisjunction.
29. In contrast to the situation for humans, meiosis in plants produces
*(a) haploid spores.
(b) identical diploid daughter cells.
(c) diploid gametes.
(d) haploid zygotes.
(e) heterozygous sperm and eggs.
30. "You start out diploid and you wind up haploid."
(a) Both homologues are still present, but only one of the sister chromatids
is in the haploid cell.
(b) Haploid cells are heterozygous.
(c) This is called fertilization.
(d) There is one cell division, and that results in haploid cells.
*(e) The genetic material is first doubled then there are two cell divisions.
31. In meiosis but not in mitosis
(a) the cell cycle has checkpoints.
*(b) the homologues line up.
(c) the cells resulting from the cell division have identical genetic material.
(d) two daughter cells are made.
(e) cells that are not going to divide any more exit G1 and go into G0.
32. Two different but closely related proteins may have arisen, over evolutionary
time, by a process of
(d) independent assortment.
*(e) unequal crossing over.
33. What is unique about the human ABO blood group example?
*(a) Two alleles are equally dominant, plus there is a third allele that
(b) Faulty chloride transport fills the lungs with thick mucus.
(c) The mutant allele confers resistance to malaria.
(d) Gerry Audesirk, one of your text's authors, passed this X-linked allele
to his daughter.
(e) Queen Victoria passed the mutation down to Rasputin.
34. What is unique about albinism in the Siamese cat and Himalayan rabbit?
(a) Different colors in different parts of the body demonstrate hybrid vigor.
(b) This was how Mendel explained his second law.
*(c) Temperature affects whether the altered enzyme functions.
(d) Different X chromosomes function in different parts of the body.
(e) It is an example of two alleles of two genes on two different chromosomes.
35. What is unique about Huntington's disease (chorea)?
(a) Antigens are already present even if there has been no exposure to the
(b) The last Czar of Russia passed this disease to his heir-apparent, his
(c) There are three alleles with two being equally dominant.
*(d) People may have already had children by the time they know they have
(e) The mutant allele codes for an enzyme that is functional at body temperature
but inactivated in the cool extremities like the ears and the nose.
36. The dihybrid cross
(a) works for animals but not plants.
*(b) results in a 9:3:3:1 ratio of phenotypes in the F2.
(c) applies to X-linked inheritance of white eye color in fruit flies.
(d) was understood by Darwin but not by Mendel.
(e) was used by Darwin to establish the law of segregation.
37. A purple flowered pea plant is true breeding.
(a) Any pea plant with the purple flower phenotype is true breeding.
(b) This is because purple flowers were recessive in Mendel's work.
*(c) It must be homozygous.
(d) It must be hybrid.
(e) It may be heterozygous.
38. Which best explains AB being the universal recipient?
*(a) It does not have plasma antibodies to A or B.
(b) It does not have A or B glycoproteins on the red blood cells.
(c) It has plasma antibodies to both A and B.
(d) Their blood can be given to anybody.
(e) Their hemoglobin clumps if oxygen is low, distorting the shape of the
red blood cell.
39. "The male parent has two sex chromosomes."
(a) This statement is incorrect.
(b) This statement is only true for males with Klinefelter's syndrome.
(c) That is why there is a Barr body in cells of the male.
*(d) One is the X and the other is the Y.
(e) This statement is only true for autosomes.
40. Sons get their X-linked genes from
(a) These genes should be called "sex-linked" and they are all
on the Y.
(c) either their mothers or their fathers.
(d) their fathers.
*(e) their mothers.
41. In the human, sexual dimorphism is initiated early in development
*(a) when a gene on the Y chromosome causes testes to differentiate.
(b) when one of the sex chromosomes in each cell is inactivated.
(c) if there is only one vs. two X chromosomes.
(d) if there is nondisjunction.
(e) if there is aneuploidy.
42. The mosaic appearance of coat color in the calico cat is based on
(a) trisomy of an autosome.
(b) the fact that there are hardly any genes on the Y chromosome.
*(c) different X chromosomes being active in different patches of skin.
(d) XYY (Jacob syndrome).
(e) Mongulism as it was first described by Richard Speck.
43. Two genes that do not assort independently
(a) allowed Mendel to formulate the first law.
*(b) are shown to be linked by genetic crosses that show cross-over probability.
(c) must be on the sex chromosomes.
(d) can be seen to be on separate chromosomes by looking in a microscope.
(e) were used to establish the law of segregation.
44. A female Drosophila that is Rr (red/white) is mated to a male that is
(a) There will be some daughters with white eyes.
(b) There will be some sons with the Rr phenotype.
(c) Only hemizygous females will be red eyed.
*(d) There will be some sons with a white-eyed phenotype.
(e) The males will have a mosaic for eye color.
45. Vaccination against small pox confers long-term immunity while vaccination
against flu does not.
(a) A substance from the Penicillium mold kills the small pox virus.
(b) Plasmids carry new DNA from one flu bacterium to another flu bacterium.
(c) Proteoglycan protects the flu virus.
(d) The problem is antibiotic resistance.
*(e) Influenza has alternative hosts (birds and pigs) and mutates.
46. Bacteria are good at biodegradation because they
(a) are composed of only protein and DNA.
(b) use endocytosis.
(c) have an enzyme called reverse transcriptase.
*(d) must put "digestive" enzymes out through their cell walls.
(e) live in hot springs.
47. What does HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) have that bacteriophage
and herpes virus do not?
(a) a heat resistant DNA polymerase
*(e) a functional enzyme
48. Why did Pruisinger's Nobel prize winning proposition for the cause of
spongiform encephalitis contradict the conventional wisdom about the cause
(a) He showed that cow pox caused bovine spongiform encephalitis.
*(b) Prions (protein without DNA or RNA) cause the disease.
(c) Plasmids inserted new genes into the virus cell.
(d) Monera (Archaea and Bacteria) cause the disease.
(e) The virus had RNA instead of DNA.
49. Vaccines confer active immunity
(a) to cure scrapie in sheep.
(b) because RNA is transcribed into DNA.
*(c) because antibodies are made against antigens.
(d) for diseases caused by bacteriophage.
(e) against Kuru and other diseases that D. Carlton Gadusek won a Nobel
prize for studying.
50. H1N1 refers to
*(a) the kinds of protein in the influenza virus.
(b) the kinds of DNA in the flu bacterium.
(c) the components in the diet that caused mad cow disease.
(d) the specifications of avian small pox.
(e) a protein that is critical to the reproduction of the bacterium that
causes AIDS (acquired immunodeficiency syndrome).
Page last revised 10/8/09
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