1. What might happen if you had too much vitamin K?
(a) You would get atherosclerosis.
*(b) You might form blood clots excessively.
(c) You would have night-blindness.
(d) Nonsense! You can never get too much of any fat-soluble vitamin.
(e) The British navy recognized that potential problem and that is why they stocked limes for sailors.

2. Of past (and perhaps present) concern in vaccine manufacture is a preservative called thimerosal which contains
(a) tocopherol.
(b) retinol.
(c) lysine and isoleucine.
*(d) mercury.
(e) B vitamins.

3. Because of their diet high in fish, polar bears have, in their livers, toxic levels of
(a) calcium.
(b) chloride.
*(c) vitamin A.
(d) the vitamin that Nobelist Pauling was noted for promoting.
(e) the vitamin that Doisy won a Nobel Prize for studying.

4. Kwashiorkor would most likely result from
*(a) amino acid deficiency.
(b) too few calories of carbohydrate.
(c) too much cholesterol.
(d) anemia.
(e) lack of citrus fruits such as lemons.

5. In the old days, because of their diet high in seafood, coastal people were not likely to have
(a) nitrogenous wastes from the utilization of amino acids for energy.
(b) anemia.
(c) deficiency of iron.
(d) rickets.
*(e) goiter.

6. Jogging ("running") one 9 minute mile
(a) would "burn off" about 10 "calories" (kcal).
*(b) would "burn off" about 100 "calories" (kcal).
(c) would "burn off" about 1,000 "calories" (kcal).
(d) would "burn off" about 10,000 "calories" (kcal).
(e) would not increase your catabolism at all.

7. Retinoic acid, important in regulating transcription, is most closely related to vitamin
*(a) A.
(b) B.
(c) C.
(d) D.
(e) E.

8. An infant in an old house puts a flake of chipping paint into his mouth; the concern is about
(a) scurvey.
(b) potassium.
(c) rhodopsin.
*(d) lead.
(e) iodine.

9. Regarding glucose and the kidney,
(a) ADH (antidiuretic hormone) transports glucose from the loop of Henle into the blood.
(b) glucose is too big a molecule to fit through the cellular sieve of the glomerulus.
*(c) glucose is resorbed (from filtrate to blood) with the help of ATP.
(d) one of the kidney's jobs is to eliminate excess glucose.
(e) the kidney of an untreated diabetic cannot resorb any glucose.

10. Regarding osmoregulation,
(a) uric acid elimination is accompanied with copious water loss.
(b) marine (ocean) fish are fortunate because they need all the salt they can get.
(c) fresh water fish use their kidneys and gills to eliminate excess salt.
(d) active transport is used for water recovery in the human kidney while salt recovery is by osmosis.
*(e) Gatorade (electrolyte replacement) tastes good because sweat glands are not as good at salt resorption as the kidneys.

11. Blood flow through the kidney
(a) goes out the collecting duct directly to the urethra.
(b) accounts for about 1/20 of the blood pumped by the heart.
(c) goes from the hypothalamus to the pituitary.
*(d) proceeds from glomerular capillaries to capillaries in the medulla by a portal system.
(e) accounts for a vanishingly small fraction of the body's blood flow.

12. Where does the nitrogen in urea come from?
(a) the Humboldt current in Bowman's capsule
*(b) catabolism of amino acids and nucleic acids
(c) the nasal gland in marine birds
(d) malpighian tubules
(e) nitrogen fixation

13. ADH (antidiuretic hormone), influences
*(a) transport of water in the collecting duct.
(b) transport of sodium in the proximal tubule.
(c) filtration of blood into Bowman's capsule.
(d) the bladder.
(e) blood flow from near the loop of Henle to the kidney cortex.

14. Which is NOT a part of the nephron?
(a) distal tubule
(b) Bowman's capsule
*(c) ureter
(d) loop of Henle
(e) proximal tubule

15. Which is not involved in phagocytosis?
(a) macrophages
(b) neutrophils
(c) basophils
(d) monocytes
*(e) lymphocytes

16. Which cells release histamine, a mediator of inflammation?
(a) megakaryocytes
(b) macrophages
*(c) mast cells
(d) T lymphocytes
(e) platelets

17. Why would a macrophage, in cooperation with T cells be much more useful than a B cell in dealing with cells infected with viruses?
(a) Fibrin is converted into fibrinogen.
(b) Antibodies are Y-shaped.
(c) Eosinophils bind eosin.
(d) Neutrophils release bile pigments.
*(e) Viral antigens are inside infected cells.

18. Chemotaxis refers to
(a) how a basophil is stained by a basic histological dye.
(b) how an antibody binds an antigen.
(c) what a cytotoxic erythrocyte does.
*(d) how a white blood cell goes from a capillary to the site of injury.
(e) how a specific antibody is coded for by a specifically altered gene.

19. Cells that "jump start" a future immune response after a vaccination.
*(a) memory cells
(b) the polymorphonuclear leukocytes that are stained by neutral dyes
(c) phagocytes
(d) alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans
(e) mononucleosis

20. Applies to steroid hormones (but not to peptide hormones):
(a) from beta cells in the islets of Langerhans
*(b) binds nuclear receptor proteins to affect transcription
(c) causes acromegaly (bone thickening) if there is too much in the adult
(d) goes through the portal system from the hypothalamus to the pituitary
(e) binds to a G protein coupled receptor in the cell's membrane to cause a "second messenger" cascade

21. Erythropoietin was mentioned in the context of
(a) binding of a hormone receptor upstream of the coding sequence of a gene.
*(b) athletes trying to boost their red blood cell counts.
(c) the reason a diabetic might go blind.
(d) ovulation (release of the egg by the follicle).
(e) a function of oxytocin in addition to affecting smooth muscle for milk release.

22. Which is NOT known for its regulation of glucose?
(a) glucagon
(b) insulin
*(c) aldosterone
(d) epinephrine
(e) glucocorticoids

23. Which is a hormone of the adrenal medulla?
(a) growth hormone
(b) calcitonin
(c) glucagon
*(d) epinephrine
(e) antidiuretic hormone

24. During fasting, liver glycogen is broken down to provide energy with the help of what hormone?
(a) a peptide from the hypothalamus
(b) a steroid from the pituitary
(c) the steroid that is absent in type II diabetes
(d) a peptide from the gonads
*(e) a peptide from the pancreas

25. Which is considered to orchestrate hunger vs. satiety?
*(a) hypothalamus
(b) cerebellum
(c) amygdala
(d) hippocampus
(e) thalamus

26. "Prozac is a 'selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor' used to treat depression."
(a) It changes the resting potential.
(b) It changes the action potential.
*(c) It potentiates the action of a neurotransmitter.
(d) It cures multiple sclerosis.
(e) It is a narcotic analgesic.

27. Ion channels are receptors for neurotransmitter chemicals on the post-synaptic membrane. Another type of neurotransmitter receptor is (are)
(a) ATP.
(b) myelin.
(c) cAMP.
*(d) G protein-coupled receptors.
(e) steroid receptors.

28. An IPSP (inhibitory postsynaptic potential)
(a) is all-or-none.
(b) jumps from one node to another past the myelin.
(c) would be recorded on the axon.
(d) is caused by polio.
*(e) is a graded potential that makes the cell more negative than the resting potential.

29. The parasympathetic nervous system
(a) is part of the central nervous system.
*(b) is a motor system but not for voluntary muscle movement.
(c) is responsible for "fight or flight."
(d) is a sensory system.
(e) explains the loss of affect that former boxer Muhammad Ali experiences.

30. The resting potential is
*(a) mediated by a potassium ion gradient and potassium channels.
(b) mediated by a sodium ion gradient and sodium channels.
(c) called a spike.
(d) called the threshold.
(e) +55 volts.

31. Which is true about pain?
(a) Pain is mediated by Pacinian corpuscles.
(b) Pain results from overstimulation of receptors for gentle touch.
*(c) Pain receptors are chemoreceptors responding to chemicals released by injury.
(d) Pain receptors are mechanoreceptors.
(e) Pain receptors respond to ultrasound

32. Which is true about audition?
(a) Auditory receptors are located in papillae.
(b) Audition projects to the back of cerebral cortex.
(c) Auditory receptor axons project directly to the first cranial nerve, the olfactory bulb.
(d) Auditory receptors respond to pheromones.
*(e) Auditory receptors are very sensitive mechanoreceptors.

33. Something catches your attention and you look at it.
(a) You focus your vision with your Eustachian tube.
*(b) Then the image is focused on your fovea.
(c) Then the image is focused right where the optic nerve exits the eye.
(d) You use near-sightedness to see it.
(e) You are seeing with your rods.

34. "On this graph, every 20 diciBels is an order of magnitude."
(a) This statement relates to how a male moth finds a female moth at night.
(b) "DeciBel" is another word for a facet in an insect's compound eye.
(c) This statement relates to why a salmon works so hard to get to its native stream.
*(d) This statement relates to loudness.
(e) This statement relates to the fact that a rod can respond to one photon.

35. Rhodopsin is
*(a) the visual pigment in rod and cone outer segments.
(b) a substance that tastes bitter but only to some people.
(c) the name they gave to a protein defective in muscular dystrophy.
(d) a pigment that makes aerobic muscle white.
(e) a sexual attractant in the moth.

36. A conspicuous sulcus (fissure), the central sulcus, in the brain, has, in front of it, the site for voluntary motor movement, and directly behind it is
(a) the olfactory structure of the brain.
(b) the primary visual area.
(c) the primary auditory area.
*(d) the somatosensory map.
(e) the brain area that connects to the pituitary.

37. Applies to the difference between dark meat and white meat muscle.
(a) smooth vs. striated
(b) innervated by parasympathetic vs. sympathetic nervous systems
*(c) aerobic vs. anaerobic metabolism
(d) autonomic vs. voluntary motor systems
(e) troponin vs. tropomyosin

38. Lou Gehrig died of a disease that affected his
(a) brain.
*(b) ability to eliminate oxygen radicals.
(c) dopamine.
(d) muscles.
(e) sensory input.

39. The most common form of muscular dystrophy, the disorder supported by the Jerry Lewis Telethon,
(a) is a viral disease that affects peripheral nervous system myelin.
(b) destroys myocardial cells.
(c) affects smooth muscle.
(d) is called multiple sclerosis.
*(e) is a genetic disease that affects a muscle protein called dystrophin.

40. When muscle is not activated, what prevents myosin from binding to actin?
*(a) tropomyosin
(b) lactic acid
(c) acetylcholine
(d) dopamine
(e) transverse tubules.

41. Which is the smallest?
(a) muscle cell
(b) myofibril
(c) muscle fiber
*(d) thick filament
(e) motor unit

42. Drugs for erectile dysfunction like Viagra function by
(a) stimulating the hypothalamus to release more gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH).
(b) stimulating the pituitary to release more luteinizing hormone (LH).
*(c) influencing parasympathetic signaling for arteriole relaxation.
(d) stimulating interstitial cells to release more testosterone.
(e) stimulating the testes to put more sperm into semen.

43. Final production of spermatozoa (with flagella) from haploid spermatids is assisted by
(a) the prostate gland.
*(b) Sertoli cells.
(c) the vasectomy.
(d) the portal system that connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary.
(e) interstitial cells.

44. What triggers the increase in FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) after menstruation?
(a) the corpus luteum.
(b) breakdown of the endometrium.
(c) ovulation.
(d) high levels of estrogen and progesterone.
*(e) low levels of estrogen and progesterone.

45. Why does the corpus luteum eventually degenerate?
*(a) lack of peptides from the pituitary
(b) lack of progesterone
(c) lack of peptides from the ovary
(d) lack of estrogen
(e) fertilization

46. Which is true about meiosis in humans?
*(a) Meiosis in the female creates the "egg" plus polar bodies.
(b) Meiosis in the male creates one sperm cell plus polar bodies.
(c) New oocytes are made from oogonia throughout a female's adult life.
(d) By the age of puberty there are no longer spermatogonia in the male.
(e) Eggs are diploid while sperm are haploid.

47. What is the ball of cells (the one with an inner cell mass, cavity plus the outer cell layer [trophoblast, future chorion]) called just before implantation?
(a) amnion
(*b) blastocyst
(c) zygote
(d) embryo
(e) mesoderm

48. When do ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm start forming?
(a) in the morula
(b) in the ball of cells formed by the first few cleavage divisions
*(c) when gastrulation occurs
(d) while the embryo is still in the ovary
(e) in the uterine tube

49. How do you test for pregnancy?
(a) perform implantation
(b) perform gastrulation
(c) do amniocentesis
(d) perform chorionic villus sampling
*(e) assay human chorionic gonadotropin

50. Why is the inner cell mass a controversial source for material for therapy?
(a) You would not have your inner cell mass biopsied if you were not contemplating abortion.
(b) It is a permanent form of sterilization, for those opposed to birth control.
(c) There is no inner cell mass until late in pregnancy after the embryo became a fetus.
*(d) You would not have an inner cell mass unless you had had fertilization.
(e) It isn't ­p; no political or religious group would object.

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