1. State one physiological mechanism an animal uses to decrease heat loss.

vasoconstriction, piloerection

2. What is the set point for human temperature regulation?

98.6 o F, 37 o C

3. Why was it a heroic endeavor, worthy of Guilleman and Schally's 1977 Nobel prize, to isolate thyrotropin releasing hormone (factor)?

releasing hormones in the hypothalamic-pituitary portal system would be present in vanishingly small amounts

4. For GLUT-1, answer either (1) Why is the transport referred to as "passive?" or (2) Why, if GLUT-1 transporters were present in the membrane, would glucose go into the cell preferentially (instead of out of the cell)?

it does not use energy (if it did it would be active), glucose more concentrted outside

5. Just for orientation, I will state that, in the phosphoinositide cascade, the hormone is "upstream" and calcium ions are "downstream." Answer either (1) What is DIRECTLY upstream from the G-protein? OR (2) What is DIRECTLY downstream from the G-protein?

the G protein coupled receptor, PLC

6. For the calcium-sequestering smooth endoplasmic reticulum (cistern), answer either, (1) What is the ligand to open the calcium channel? OR (2) Which direction do the calcium ions move?

IP3, from inside to the cytoplasm

7. It was convenient for physiologists that squids have giant axons. Why was it convenient for the squid?

a fast action potential makes the mantle contract all at once for the escape behavior

8. What results from current flowing through a resistor?

voltage

9. Although it is close to the truth, and very useful in the derivation of the Nernst equation, in what way was the equilibrium assumption not completely true?

current flows through an open channel, and it should not if electrical and chemical gradients are equal and opposite

10. In the equivalent circuit of the Goldman equation, why are the chloride vs sodium batteries in reverse polarity even though their ion gradient is the same (high outside, low inside)?

sodium is a cation, chloride is an anion

11. "You cannot trigger a new spike right after one spike." Answer either (1) What is this property called? OR (2) Why is this property critical for the flow of information in the axon?

refractory period, ensures that the action potential goes unidirectionally

12. "An action potential is the stimulus to trigger an action potential ahead of it" since it is such a huge change in membrane voltage from the resting level. Why, in an unmyelinated axon, is there a limited distance ahead of it, rather than the whole length of the axon, that it depolarizes the axon to threshold?

because current leaks out through the membrane resistance and capacitance

13. "You need to really cook the tomatoes from your garden as well as the Mason jars you pack them in." Say something about how this advice applies to neurotransmitter release.

endospores that can start new botulinum producing anaerobic bacteria are heat resistant

14. For IPSP, answer ONE of the following: (1) What does IPSP stand for? (2) What happens to the membrane potential during an IPSP? OR (3) What happens to the conductance of the post-synaptic membrane during an IPSP?

inhibitory postsynaptic potential, it hyperpolarizes, it increases

15. For the substantia nigra, answer one of the following: (1) What transmitter does it send to a place in the brain that helps control motor movements? OR (2) Give one name (of the several names presented) of the place the substantia nigr sends its transmitter to.

dopamine, caudate putamen basal ganglia, etc

16. To treat Parkinson's disease, why do they need to give the precursor of the deficient neurotransmitter? In other words, why can't they administer high doses of the deficient neurotransmitter to the patient?

dopamine does not cross the blood brain barrier but l-DOPA does

17. An erectile dysfunction (ED) medication such as Viagra potentiates NO (nitric oxide) signaling by inhibiting a phosphodiesterase that converts (what?) to (what?).

cGMP to GMP

18. For beta-1 adrenergic receptors, answer either (1) What is the neurotransmitter? or (2) What effect would its activation have on heart rate?

norepinephrine, speed it up

19. What keeps myosin from binding to actin in relaxed muscle?

tropomyosin blocks the binding sites on actin

20. Why does myosin remain bound to actin in rigor mortis?

lack of ATP

21. Hemoglobin off-loads oxygen to what muscle protein?

myoglobin

22. ATP conversion to ADP can put a phosphate onto what other temporary store of muscle energy in a high energy phosphate bond?

creatine phosphate

23. Why was it suggested that Caucasians of northern European origin were least likely to be intolerant of lactose as adults?

that human population evolved in the company of dairy husbandry

24. Three fatty acid molecules plus a glycerol monecule is comverted into one triglyceride molecule plus (how many of what molecule?).

3 waters

25. When you eat a lot, your body's biosynthesis of fat involves the creation of glycerol from phosphoglyceraldehyde and fatty acids (from what?)

acetic acid

26. More glucose carriers are inserted into the cell's plasmalemma when it is necessary, because glucose is plentiful after a meal, to transport glucose into the cell. How can this happen without the cell synthesizing new glucose transporters?

they are in vesicles, ready to go

27. What is it about the brain's glucose uptake that underlies coma (shock) if too much insulin is injected?

it is not insulin dependent, but muscle and fat are

28. In extreme and prolonged cases of diabetes, why might the patient go blind?

diabetic retinopathy is from angiogenesis, and the new blood vessels leak

29. What is the name of the process that would generate glucose while your muscles get smaller during a long starvation diet?

gluconeogenesis

30. What effect would cortisol release from the adrenal cortex have on adipose tissue?

release of free fatty acids

31. Valves that separate the ventricles from the arteries. Answer either (1) What are they called? OR (2) What heart sound is made when they snap shut?

semilunars, second (dub)

32. "The atrial beat contributes only a little to ventricular filling." Then how come ventricles fill most of the way?

venous return "gushes" past the atria through the open bicuspid and tricuspid valves

33. For HCN channels, answer either (1) Which cells have these channels? OR (2) Which cyclic nucleotide are they referring to by "CN?"

pacemaker cells, cAMP

34. How could a useful heart beat be initiated if there were no atrial beat?

the AV node is also automatic, slightly slower

35. A coronary artery is partly occluded from plaque build-up over the years associated with atherosclerosis. What commonly happens on a faster time scale to take that artery from partly to fully occluded?

a thrombus forms or an embolism lodges

36. Angina! Quick, take your nitroglycerine. What is the mechanism for it to stop a heart attack in progress?

relax smooth muscle in coronary arteries

37. Why would the ventricle need to work harder to move blood into the aorta if a person has high diastolic blood pressure?

it would not open the semilunar valve until the ventricular pressure is higher

38. "Epinephrine in a lung inhaler does not increase air flow by decreasing inflammation." Elaborate.

it relaxes smooth muscle

39. The partial pressure of oxygen in the pulmonary vein is 100 mm Hg while it is 40 in the pulmonary artery. And yet I said that there was still considerable oxygen carried in the blood when the value was 40. What was the basis of this assertion?

the percent saturation of hemoglobin is 75% on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve

40. How does an enzyme in red blood cells increase the blood's ability to transport carbon dioxide?

carbonic anhydrase turns CO2 (and H2O) to carbonic acid allowing conversion to bicarbonate

41. What aspect of kidney function would be tested by the inulin clearance test?

glomerular filtration

42. Why is it necessary to involve a sodium - potassium pump to resorb glucose from the lumen of the kidney tubule?

because sodium comes in in the sodium glucose cotransporter

43. The sweat glands are not as good as the kidney in maintaining the body's salt. How does this relate to your fluid intake preferences if you perspire a lot?

you prefer an electrolyte coctail because you have a sodium appetite

44. What will a hormone from the posterior pituitary do to the TONICITY (osmolarity) of the urine?

urine will be more concentrated

45. Something (what is the name of this structure?) that functions somewhat like a sphincter keeps "food" in the stomach after it leaves the esophagus.

cardiac oriface

46. In addition to a facilitated diffusion glucose transporter and a glucose sodium cotransporter, what is necessary to transport glucose across the intestinal epithelium?

a sodium pump

47. How do products of intestinal absorption get delivered to the cells with smooth endoplasmic reticulum (the microsomal fraction) for detoxification by hepatocytes?

by the hepatic portal vein

48. Why, after delivery, does the obstetrician give the baby to the mother to suckle (assuming that the mother was planning to breast feed)?

the stimulated oxytocin release would contract uterine muscles

49. In contrast with NSAIDs, what gland produces anti-inflammatory secretions?

in contrast with non-steroidal would be cortisol from the adrenal cortex

50. In addition to androgens and glucocorticoids, what other major class of steroids is secreted from the adrenal cortex?

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

51. "The estrogen was not coming out of the "egg," it was coming out of (what?).

the follicle

52. After implantation, what hormone keeps the endometrium from breaking down?

progesterone

53. In addition to putting a collagenase to bone, what else does an osteoclast send to bone to mobilize calcium ions?

hydrochloric acid

54. Why would a transdermal patch be less questionable than oral administration for estrogen replacement therapy?

hormone would not be altered by liver enzymes

55. There is testosterone before and at the time of birth in males, but for normal male structures to develop, 5alpha-reductase must turn this testosterone into what?

dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

56. What was it about Celebrex, Vioxx and Bextra that made them so effective in arthritis treatment without having the gastric side effects of aspirin and ibuprofen?

they inhibited COX2 specifically

57. Nuclei in spermatogonia are labeled "2n," while those in sperm are labeled "n." What are the other common terms to describe the full genetic complement and half of that?

diploid, haploid

58. An outer rim of the blastocyst is called the trophoblast. What will that turn into later?

chorion, placenta

59. In a surgery called a "tubal ligtion," what tube is ligated?

fallopian=uterine

60. It I tell you that the mesonephric duct differentiates into epididymides, ductus deferentia and ejaculatory ducts under the influence of testosterone, you tell me what happens to it if there is no testosterone.

it degenerates

61. In clotting, what protein, at the end of a cascade, polymerases to form a net that captures blood cells?

fibrin

62. In contrast with the situation for Rh factor, a type A mother does not have to worry about having children after having a type B baby. Why not?

IgM does not cross the placenta

63. B lymphocytes were shown with IgD molecules (B cell receptors) on their surfaces. How does the function of these B cell receptors fit in with the eventual exocytosis of specific IgG molecules by plasma cells of that clone?

they help the B cell identify the antigens to make antibodies to

64. In addition to the class 1 or 2 MHC molecule and the CD 8 or 4 coreceptor, what else is involved in the direct communication between the infected cell and the killer T cell (or the macrophage and the helper T cell?

the antigen that is presented

65. What is the property of a receptor like the Pacinian corpuscle that makes it optimum for feeling whether a surface is textured?

rapid adaptation

66. For the spinothalamic tract, say something about (1) where is the decussation? Or (2) where, in the spinal cord, is the tract?

right at the point of entry into the spinal cord

67. The basal nuclei make up the extrapyramidal motor system. How does this system's output function without sending a tract down the spinal cord?

through the thalamus, they send their output back to the precentral gyrus

68. Papillae (all types), vagus nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, thalamus, postcentral gyrus. Give one nerve or CNS location missing from this list in the taste projection.

facial nerve, gustatory nucleus of medulla

69. Where is the first synapse in the olfactory projection?

in the olfactory bulb

70. In the vestibular system, answer either (1) What are the little stones called? OR (2) What is the name of one of the two organs that use these little stones?

otoliths, utricle, saccule

71. Pressure is trnsmitted to the oval window, answer either (1) By what bone? OR (2) Since the fluid cannot be compressed, there is a release of the vibrations through what structure? OR (3) What is this fluid called?

stirrup=stapes, round window, perilymph

72. Describe tonotopic organization for audition in the brain.

in the auditory cortex, there is a place mapping of cells that respond to different frequencies

73. Why are you unable to see ultraviolet light (while I can)?

the lens blocks UV, I had a lens removed

74. Why do victims of retinitis pigmentosa first become blind in a ring around the fovea?

that's where rods dominate vision, and rods degenerate

75. Why did I generalize the finding concerning the location and function of two X-linked vision color vision genes to explain the evolution of the superfamily of G protein coupled receptors?

duplication and divergence to two slightly different functions, as a mechanism, if repeated many times can make widely divergent functions

Last updated Dec 4, 2012

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